Wednesday, June 14, 2017

Materi Subnetting

ITN Chapter 11 Exam

Introduction to Networks (Version 5.0) - ITN Chapter 11 Exam
1. Which network design consideration would be more important to a large corporation than to a small business?
  • Internet router
  • firewall
  • low port density switch
  • redundancy
2. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?
  • SNMP
  • TCP
  • PoE
  • RTP
3. How should traffic flow be captured in order to best understand traffic patterns in a network?
  • during low utilization times
  • during peak utilization times
  • when it is on the main network segment only
  • when it is from a subset of users
4. A network administrator checks the security log and notices there was unauthorized access to an internal file server over the weekend. Upon further investigation of the file system log, the administrator notices several important documents were copied to a host located outside of the company. What kind of threat is represented in this scenario?
  • data loss
  • identity theft
  • information theft
  • disruption of service
5. Which two actions can be taken to prevent a successful attack on an email server account? (Choose two.)
  • Never send the password through the network in a clear text.
  • Never use passwords that need the Shift key.
  • Never allow physical access to the server console.
  • Only permit authorized access to the server room.
  • Limit the number of unsuccessful attempts to log in to the server.
6. Which type of network attack involves the disabling or corruption of networks, systems, or services?
  • reconnaissance attacks
  • access attacks
  • denial of service attacks
  • malicious code attacks
7. A network administrator has determined that various computers on the network are infected with a worm. Which sequence of steps should be followed to mitigate the worm attack?
  • inoculation, containment, quarantine, and treatment
  • containment, quarantine, treatment, and inoculation
  • treatment, quarantine, inoculation, and containment
  • containment, inoculation, quarantine, and treatment
8. What is a security feature of using NAT on a network?
  • allows external IP addresses to be concealed from internal users
  • allows internal IP addresses to be concealed from external users
  • denies all packets that originate from private IP addresses
  • denies all internal hosts from communicating outside their own network
9. Refer to the exhibit. Baseline documentation for a small company had ping round trip time statistics of 36/97/132 between hosts H1 and H3. Today the network administrator checked connectivity by pinging between hosts H1 and H3 that resulted in a round trip time of 1458/2390/6066. What does this indicate to the network administrator?

  • Connectivity between H1 and H3 is fine.
  • H3 is not connected properly to the network.
  • Something is causing interference between H1 and R1.
  • Performance between the networks is within expected parameters.
  • Something is causing a time delay between the networks.
10. When should an administrator establish a network baseline?
  • when the traffic is at peak in the network
  • when there is a sudden drop in traffic
  • at the lowest point of traffic in the network
  • at regular intervals over a period of time
11. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot connectivity between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1 to do it. Based on the displayed output, where should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

  • PC2
  • R1
  • SW2
  • R2
  • SW1
12. A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2. The network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors command. Why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping failed between the two routers?
  • The network administrator suspects a virus because the ping command did not work.
  • The network administrator wants to verify Layer 2 connectivity.
  • The network administrator wants to verify the IP address configured on router R2.
  • The network administrator wants to determine if connectivity can be established from a non-directly connected network.
13. Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?
  • The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity?.
  • To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used.
  • CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface
  • Because it runs at the data link layer?, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.
14. What is the purpose of issuing the commands cd nvram: then dir at the privilege exec mode of a router?
  • to clear the content of the NVRAM
  • to direct all new files to the NVRAM
  • to list the content of the NVRAM
  • to copy the directories from the NVRAM
15. If a configuration file is saved to a USB flash drive attached to a router, what must be done by the network administrator before the file can be used on the router?
  • Convert the file system from FAT32 to FAT16.
  • Edit the configuration file with a text editor.
  • Change the permission on the file from ro to rw.
  • Use the dir command from the router to remove the Windows automatic alphabetization of the files on the flash drive.
16. Which command will backup the configuration that is stored in NVRAM to a TFTP server?
  • copy running-config tftp
  • copy tftp running-config
  • copy startup-config tftp
  • copy tftp startup-config
17. Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
  • tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
  • consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
  • responsible for determining the signal strength
  • all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
  • used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network
18. What do WLANs that conform to IEEE 802.11 standards allow wireless users to do?
  • use wireless mice and keyboards
  • create a one-to-many local network using infrared technology
  • use cell phones to access remote services over very large areas
  • connect wireless hosts to hosts or services on a wired Ethernet network
19. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?
  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA
20. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
  • Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
  • Some RF channels provide automatic encryption of wireless data.
  • With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
  • Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
  • An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.
21. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The ---------- command that is issued on a router is used to verify the value of the software configuration register.?

22. Fill in the blank.
---------- defines the protocols and technologies that implement the transmission of voice data over an IP network.

23. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The show ---------- command provides information about the amount of free nvram and flash memory with the permissions for reading or writing data.

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
How long will a user be blocked if the user exceeds the maximum allowed number of unsuccessful login attempts?
  • 1 minute
  • 2 minutes
  • 3 minutes 
  • 4 minutes

ITN Chapter 10 Exam

Introduction to Networks (Version 5.0) - ITN Chapter 10 Exam
1. Which three layers of the OSI model provide similar network services to those provided by the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
  • physical layer
  • session layer
  • transport layer
  • application layer
  • presentation layer
  • data link layer
2. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)
  • compression
  • addressing
  • encryption
  • session control
  • authentication
3. Select three protocols that operate at the Application Layer of the OSI model. (Choose three.)
  • ARP
  • TCP
  • DSL
  • FTP
  • POP3
  • DHCP
4. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)
  • FTP
  • HTTP
  • DNS
  • SNMP
  • DHCP
  • SMTP
5. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
  • scalable
  • one way data flow
  • decentralized resources
  • centralized user accounts
  • resource sharing without a dedicated server
6. What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server model?
  • A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is determined.
  • A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host.
  • A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a coworker.
  • A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types in the address bar of a web browser.
7. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?
  • Messages are kept in the mail servers until the client manually deletes them.
  • When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but
  • IMAP keeps them for a long time.
  • IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.
  • POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.
8. Which two actions are taken by SMTP if the destination email server is busy when email messages are sent? (Choose two.)
  • SMTP sends an error message back to the sender and closes the connection.
  • SMTP tries to send the messages at a later time.
  • SMTP will discard the message if it is still not delivered after a predetermined expiration time.
  • SMTP periodically checks the queue for messages and attempts to send them again.
  • SMTP sends the messages to another mail server for delivery.
9. Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?
  • DNS
  • DHCP
  • SMTP
  • HTTP
  • POP3
10. A DHCP-enabled client PC has just booted. During which two steps will the client PC use broadcast messages when communicating with a DHCP server? (Choose two.)
11. A user accessed the game site last week. The night before the user accesses the game site again, the site administrator changes the site IP address. What will be the consequence of that action for the user?
  • The user will not be able to access the site.
  • The user will access the site without problems.
  • The user will have to modify the DNS server address on the local PC in order to access the site.
  • The user will have to issue a ping to this new IP address to be sure that the domain name remained the same.
12. Which DNS server in the DNS hierarchy would be considered authoritative for the domain name records of a company named netacad?
  • .com
13. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
  • The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
  • The destination IP address is
  • The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
  • The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
  • All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
  • Only the DHCP server receives the message.
14. Which phrase describes an FTP daemon?
  • a diagnostic FTP program
  • a program that is running on an FTP server
  • a program that is running on an FTP client
  • an application that is used to request data from an FTP server
15. What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?
  • Different SMB message types have a different format.
  • Clients establish a long term connection to servers.
  • SMB messages cannot authenticate a session.
  • SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.
16. When would it be more efficient to use SMB to transfer files instead of FTP?
  • when downloading large files with a variety of formats from different servers
  • when a peer-to-peer application is required
  • when the host devices on the network use the Windows operating system
  • when downloading large numbers of files from the same server
  • when uploading the same file to multiple remote servers
17. Fill in the blank.
What is the acronym for the protocol that is used when securely communicating with a web server?
18. Fill in the blank.
Refer to the exhibit. What command was used to resolve a given host name by querying the name servers?

19. Match the DNS record type to the corresponding description. (Not all options are used.)

20. Match the purpose with its DHCP message type. (Not all options are used.)

21. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)

22. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which PC or PCs are sending FTP packets to the server?
  • PC_3
  • PC_1
  • PC_2 
  • PC_1 and PC_3

Materi Subnetting